150+ NCLEX-PN Practice Questions PDF Free Download:2023

1. Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member.

• Occupational therapist: Gait exercises
• Physical therapist: The provision of assistive devices to facilitate the activities of daily living
• Speech and language therapist: The treatment of swallowing disorders
• Case manager: Ordering medications and treatments

2. The recommended daily caloric intake for sedentary older men, active adult women and children is:

• 2400 calories
• 1600 calories
• 2800 calories
• 2000 calories

3. Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with:

• Surgical asepsis
• Catabolism
• Cachexia
• Venous stasis

4. Select all the possible opportunistic infections that adversely affect HIV/AIDS infected patients.

• Visual losses
• Kaposi’s sarcoma
• Wilms’ sarcoma
• Tuberculosis
• Peripheral neuropathy
• Toxoplasma gondii

5. What can help reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?

• Preoperative teaching
• Preoperative checklist
• Psychological counseling
• Preoperative medication

6. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate?

• Cancer
• Hypothyroidism
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
• Cardiac failure

7. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function?

• Carotid
• Brachial
• Pedal
• Radial

8. The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing  because this position:

• Is physically more comfortable for the patient
• Helps the patient to support their incision with a pillow
• Loosens respiratory secretions
• Allows the patient to observe their area and relax

9. Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply.

• Intramuscular medication administration
• Central line intravenous medication administration
• Donning gloves in the operating room
• Neonatal bathing
• Foley catheter insertion
• Emptying a urinary drainage bag

10. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities?

• To increase efficiency
• To contain costs
• To improve processes
• To improve policies

11. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is:

• Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience.
• Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not.
• Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not.
• Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years.

12. What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy?

• Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables
• Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative
• Lying flat on back when sleeping
• Reduction of iron intake by half or more

13. You are the LPN working on 2 east with adult medical surgical patients. Your unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal evacuation of your patients because there is a fire on 1 east. Where will you evacuate your patients to?

• 3 west
• 3 east
• 2 west
• 1 west

14. Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities?

• Chloride
• Magnesium
• Potassium
• Phosphate

15. Number the choices below to reflect the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher:

• Aim at the base of the fire
• Squeeze the handle
• Sweep back and forth
• Pull the pin

16. As you are working you suspect that another licensed practical nurse is verbally and physically abusing a patient. What is the first thing that you will do?

• Nothing because you are not certain that it is occurring
• Nothing because you only suspect the abuse
• Call the police or the security department
• Report your suspicions to the charge nurse

17. Which of the following is the World Health Organization’s (WHO) definition of health?

• The absence of all illness and disease
• The absence of any comorbidities
• A holistic state of wellbeing
• A use of health promotion activities

18. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self care?

• Dorothea Orem
• Madeleine Leininger
• Martha Rogers
• Sister Callista Roy

19. What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination?

• Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen
• Examination of the anus and rectum
• Urinalysis for glucose, protein and ketones
• Visual assessment of cervix and vagina

20. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a:

• Possible sign of pregnancy.
• Presumptive sign of pregnancy.
• Probable sign of pregnancy.
• Positive sign of pregnancy.

21. Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

• Cool skin
• Thickened bodily hair
• Heat intolerance
• Constipation
• Insomnia
• Increased appetite
• Palpitations

22. During which phase of the nursing process does data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse?

• The implementation phase
• The assessment phase
• The evaluation phase
• The planning phase

23. Which of the following is the best worded expected outcome?

• “The nurse will provide for adequate hydration”
• “The nurse will insure that the patient is safe”
• “The patient will cough and deep breathe every two hours”
• “The patient will value health”

24. What is a major difference between a problem oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record?

• The problem oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the source oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession’s progress notes.
• The problem oriented medical system consists of narrative progress notes and the source oriented medical record uses SOAP.
• The source oriented medical system uses charting by exception and the source oriented medical record system does not.
• The source oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the problem oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession’s progress notes.

25. Which of the following are necessary elements of malpractice? Select all that apply.

• A breach of duty
• An intentional act
• A nonintentional act
• Forseeability
• Patient harm
• Causation

26. Select the following fire emergency interventions in correct sequential order.

• Pull the fire alarm.
• Contain the fire.
• Rescue patients in danger.
• Extinguish the fire.

27. After your patient has been told that they have Cushing’s syndrome, the patient asks you what Cushing’s syndrome is. How would you respond to this patient’s question?

• “Cushing’s syndrome is a type of irritable bowel syndrome.”
• “Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the adrenal gland.”
• “Cushing’s syndrome often occurs among patients who are getting radiation therapy.”
• “Cushing’s syndrome often occurs among patients who are chemotherapy.”

28. You are preparing a sterile field for a operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field?

• When you have placed a sterile item only 1 inch and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field
• When you have completely finished the field. You cannot stop the set up until it is all done.
• When you have accidentally poured a sterile liquid into a container that was on the sterile field
• When you turn your upper body only away from the field because the surgeon calls your name

29. Avulsed teeth should be placed in:

• Normal saline.
• Cold water.
• Milk.
• Warm water.

30. You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age?

• To cough, deep breathe and improve respiratory status
• To establish industry and self confidence
• To develop autonomy and self control
• To develop initiative and a sense of purpose

31. The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from:

• Weeks 1 to 12.
• Weeks 1 to 10.
• Weeks 3 to 5.
• Weeks 6 to 10.

32. Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using # 1 as the greatest priority and # 5 as the least of all in terms of priority.

• Self esteem and esteem by others
• Self actualization
• Psychological needs
• Love and belonging
• Physiological needs

33. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood?

• 3rd week
• 5th week
• 9th week
• 6th week

34. Which of the following is a vector of infection?

• A contaminated ball
• A contaminated thermometer
• An infected person
• An infectious fly

35. Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding?

• Herpes simplex
• Candidiasis
• Alphthous ulcers
• Leukoplakia

36. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?

• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Breast cancer
• Pancreatic cancer
• Gastric cancer

37. States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things that nursing assistants can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? Select all that apply.

• Nursing assistants can change catheter tubings but not catheters
• Nursing assistants can change sterile dressings
• Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states.
• Nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients.
• Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to intact skin.
• The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns.

38. A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type?

• Android
• Anthropoid
• Gynecoid
• Platypelloid

39. How many bones make up a newborn’s skull?

• 8
• 4
• 6
• 5

40. Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a Mallory-Weiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient?

• “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a kind of diverticulitis.”
• “A Mallory-Weiss tear is an esophageal tear”
• “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a lacrimal gland disorder.”
• “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear that results from a peptic ulcer.”

41. You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants’ orientation class about infection control and handwashing techniques. What would you include in this teaching?

• Demonstrate the correct one minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water.
• Demonstrate the correct 2 minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water.
• Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap.
• Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap.

42. How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter?

• Between 10-11
• 12
• 20
• Between 15 or 16

43. Periwound maceration occurs when:

• The skin around the wound softens and is damaged.
• Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound.
• Negative-pressure to “air out” the wound is used.
• The skin around the wound dries out and hardens.

44. Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis?

• A 70 year old male patient who has liver disease
• A 70 year old female patient who has liver disease
• A 50 year old male patient who is Asian
• A 50 year old female patient who is Asian

45. Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection.

• Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves and mask
• Droplet precautions: Face mask
• Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room
• Contact precautions: Gloves

46. Which statement about Meniere’s disease is accurate and true?

• Meniere’s disease most commonly occurs among members of the elderly population.
• Meniere’s disease is insidious and it always affects both ears.
• Meniere’s disease occurs with an impairment of the second cranial nerve.
• Antiemetic drugs are used for the treatment of patients affected with Meniere’s disease.

47. Which of these patients is affected with a healthcare acquired infection?

• A 18 year old male patient who developed a intravenous line infection two days after insertion
• A 72 year old male patient who is at risk for infection secondary to AIDS/HIV
• A 67 year old female patient who was admitted with a urinary tract infection
• A 5 year old pediatric patient who develops the measles rash 3 days after admission

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48. The stages of infection in correct sequential order are:

• The prodromal, incubation, illness and convalescence stages
• The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages
• The prodromal, primary, secondary and tertiary stages
• The inflammation, infection and immunity stages

49. What is the single most important thing that nurses do in order to prevent the spread of infection?

• Applying standard precautions
• Using personal protective equipment
• Adhering to the principles of asepsis
• Handwashing

50. Rh negative maternal blood indicates:

• An incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus.
• That antibodies in the mother’s blood are attacking her baby’s blood.
• The mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery.
• The mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells.

51. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn’s weight of:

• 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
• 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
• 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
• 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.

52. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• 8 to 12 months of age.
• 20 to 24 months of age.
• 16 to 20 months of age.
• 12 to 16 months of age.

53. What percentage of term newborns has a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion?

• 2% to 4%
• 10% to 20%
• 5% to 10%
• 7% to 9%

54. Who should document care?

• The LPNs should document the care that they provided and the care that was given by unlicensed assistive staff.
• The registered nurse must document all of the care that is provided by the nursing assistants because they are accountable for all care.
• All staff members should document all of the care that they have provided.
• All staff should document all of the care that they have provided but the registered nurse, as the only independent practitioner, signs it.

55. Your 54 year old male HIV positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?

• Bathe the patient but it is no longer necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased.
• Place the patient in an negative pressure isolated area of the morgue.
• Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection.
• Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.

56. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

• Radicular pain: A broken bone
• Central neuropathic pain: A spinal cord injury
• Peripheral neuropathic pain: A fractured leg bone
• Chronic pain: A stab wound to the chest
• Nocicetive pain: A laceration
• Radicular pain: A herniated spinal disc

57. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

• The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
• The icteric stage: Flu like symptoms occur
• The preicteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
• The posticteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occurs

58. Which nursing diagnosis is the most commonly used among patients who are affected with fibromyalgia?

• Decreased self care in the activities of daily living related to fatigue
• Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances
• Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances
• At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia

59. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?

• Social demographic
• Environmental
• Biophysical
• Psychosocial

60. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

• 1 in 85 births.
• 1 in 5400 births.
• 1 in 2700 births.
• 1 in 540 births.

61. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?

• Inevitable
• Missed
• Habitual
• Habitual

62. Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with?

• Drug addiction
• Drug interactions
• Drug side effects
• Drug tolerance

63. The normal sodium level in the body is:

• 135 to 145 milliequivalents.
• 3 to 5 milliequivalents.
• 135 to 145 microequivalents.
• 3 to 5 microequivalents.

64. Which type of practice is most similar to research based practice?

• Best practices
• Evidence based practice
• Benchmark practices
• Standard based practice

65. Select the ethical principles that are paired with their description. Select all that apply.

• Justice: Being honest and fair
• Beneficence: Do no harm
• Veracity: Treating all patients equally
• Self determination: Facilitating patient choices
• Beneficence: Do good
• Nonmaleficence: Do no harm
• Self determination: Accountability

66. You are caring for a patient with multiple-trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, it the most serious?

• A deviated trachea
• Gross deformity of a lower extremity
• Hematuria
• Decreased bowel sounds

67. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?

• Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
• A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
• Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
• Mc Burney’s point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.

68. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?

• Lice infestation
• Scabies
• Dematitis
• Acne vulgaris

69. You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. This nurse was fired because the nurse has:

• Violated the law
• Acted in a negligent manner
• Not completed the proper documentation
• Violated an ethical principle

70. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease?

• Crohn’s disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum and ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• Crohn’s disease presents with shallow ulcerations and ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn’s disease and it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• Crohn’s disease has primarily mucosal involvement and it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

71. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• Complete heart block

72. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• The administration of a potassium sparing diuretic for heart failure
• A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• A cerebral diuretic to decease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

73. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

• An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
• A male patient with hypothyroidism
• A male patient with hyperthyroidism
• An adolescent with a closed head injury

74. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchititis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?

• This disorder often occurs as the result of a streptococcus.
• This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
• This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
• This disorder is typically treated with surgery.

75. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient’s medical record because they have a “need to know”? Select all that apply.

• Student nurses caring for a particular patient
• Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient
• The Vice President for Nursing who is investigating a patient fall
• Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient
• A quality assurance nurse collecting data for a performance improvement activity

76. Which cardiac arrhythmia can be either acquired or congenital and can spontaneously disappear on its own or lead to ventricular fibrillation?

• Wenckebach
• Premature arterial contractions
• Torsades de pointes
• Premature ventricular contractions

77. Which quality assurance or performance improvement technique is used to identify underlying process flaws?

• Small group process
• Root cause analysis
• People at fault process
• Cause and effect

78. Which legal document will most likely contain the patient’s decision to not get cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

• Healthcare surrogacy
• Healthcare proxy
• Advance directives
• Durable power of attorney

79. Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics.

• Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin.
• Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost.
• Stage III: The wound has slough and eschar.
• Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat.

80. You have been assigned to care for a neonate who has been diagnosed with the Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother asks you what the Tetralogy of Fallot is. How should you respond to this mother?

• “The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital gastrointestinal disorder”
• “The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac disorder”
• “The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby’s reflexes”
• “The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby’s ability to breastfeed”

81. The protrusion of an internal organ through a wound or surgical incision is referred to as:

• Serosanguineous.
• Dehiscence.
• Evisceration.
• Exuded.

82. Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age?

• The PEPPS pain scale
• The FLACC pain scale
• The Faces pain scale
• The CRIES pain scale

83. Which of the following is a hazard of immobility?

• Loss of bone calcium
• Increased vital capacity
• Venous vasoconstriction
• A positive nitrogen balance

84. How many daily feedings are considered normal for a newborn:

• 8 to 10
• 10 to 12
• 6 to 8
• 12 to 14

85. The hormone produces mother’s milk is:

• Progesterone
• Estrogen.
• Prolactin.
• Colostrum.

86. Which of the following is a life threatening acute complication of diabetes mellitus?

• Neuropathy
• Hypoglycemia
• Retinopathy
• Impaired microcirculation

87. Sutures and staples are typically removed following surgery within:

• 7 to 10 days if healing is considered adequate.
• 10 to 14 days if healing is considered adequate.
• 7 to 10 days if no further dressings are needed.
• 10 to 14 days if no further dressings are needed.

88. Which of these breath sounds is considered normal and not adventitious?

• Vesicular breath sounds
• Fine rales
• Rhonchi
• Wheezes

89. Which type of burn leads to the greatest degree of pain?

• A first degree burn
• A second degree burn
• A third degree burn
• A fourth degree burn

90. Babies should double their birth weight by the:

• 5th to 6th month.
• 3rd to 4th month.
• 4th to 5th month.
• 5th to 7th month.

91. Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently?

• A liquid diet.
• Tilting the head back when swallowing.
• Tucking the chin in when swallowing.
• Following each bite with a drink of water.

92. How long can women lactate for?

• Indefinitely
• 12 to 18 months
• 18 to 24 months
• 30 to 36 months

93. Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

94. Your 32 year old female patient has erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules. What disorder would you most likely suspect based on these signs and symptoms?

• Leukemia
• Histoplasmosis
• Pneumocystis jirovec
• Rheumatoid arthritis

95. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• The first cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

96. What is the name of the section marked:

• Left ventricle
• Right ventricle
• Left atrium
• Right atrium
• Coronary artery
• Pulmonary artery

97. Round off these numbers to the nearest hundredth. Fill in the blanks.

• 5.5778 = _________
• 1.027 = _________
• 62.999 = _________
• 55.123 = _________
• 96.679 = _________

98. Label the following bones of the pelvis:

99. Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth:

• 5.5778 = _________
• 1.027 = _________
• 62.999 = _________
• 55.123 = _________
• 96.676 = _________

100. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• 1 Tablet
• 2 Tablets
• 3 Tablets
• 4 Tablet

101. Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights?

• An 86 year old female who remains independent in terms of the activities of daily living.
• An unemancipated 16 year old who chooses to not have an intravenous line.
• A 32 year old who does not need the help of the nurse to bathe and groom themselves.
• A 99 year old who wants CPR despite the fact that the nurse and doctor do not think that it would be successful.

102. The mnemonic “PERLA” is useful for the assessment of the eyes. What does PERLA stand for?

• Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
• Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
• Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
• Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity

103. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

• It is normal among adolescents.
• It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
• It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
• It is not a normal finding.

104. Which patient is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bedrest
• A middle aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

105. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen and Osler’s nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?

• Tuberculosis
• AIDS/HIV
• Pericarditis
• Endocarditis

106. Your pediatric weighs 15.8 kg. How many pounds does this child weigh?

• 36 pounds
• 33.6 pounds
• 35 pounds
• 34.8 pounds

107. An episiotomy is:

• A surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery.
• Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before crowning occurs.
• An incision in the abdomen with which the baby can be delivered through.
• The severance of the umbilical cord between mother and child.

108. How many calories per kilogram does an average full term infant require when the infants is around 1-2 months old?

• 140 calories per kilogram per day
• 120 calories per kilogram per day
• 100 calories per kilogram per day
• 160 calories per kilogram per day

109. What are the six levels of consciousness from the most to the least responsive level of consciousness. Number all six using 1 as the most conscious and 6 as the least conscious.

• Obtunded
• Confused
• Lethargic
• Comatose
• Stuporous
• Alert

110. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out, sodium ions build up and metabolic acidosis increases.

111. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

• 38 gtts/min
• 42 gtts/min
• 50 gtts/min
• 40 gtts/min

112. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• Stage I
• Stage II
• Stage III
• Stage VI

113. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.

• The use of oral contraceptives
• Type B and O blood
• Rh negative blood
• Obesity
• Nulliparity
• Leukemia

114. Most water leaves the body by way of the:

• Lungs.
• Intestines.
• Skin.
• Kidneys.

115. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea and vomiting, blurry vision and halos.
• Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from the glaucoma.

116. A cavity containing pus surrounded by inflamed tissue is:

• Cellulitis.
• An abscess.
• Extravasation.
• An adhesion.

117. The doctor has ordered 20 cc an hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using a pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set? Fill in the blank.____ drops per minute.

• 30 drops per minute
• 25 drops per minute
• 20 drops per minute
• 22 drops per minute

118. What does the mnemonic device ABCDE stand for?

• Allergy, bleeding, chemicals, dietary, environment
• Allergy, bleeding, cardio, diabetes, endocrine
• Allergy, bleeding, cardio, digestive, endocrine
• Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, emboli

119. Which of the following assessment tools is used to determine the patients’ level of consciousness?

• The Snellen Scale
• The Norton Scale
• The Morse Scale
• The Glasgow Scale

120. Wilms’ tumor is a form of:

• Renal cancer.
• Liver cancer.
• Basal cell carcinoma.
• Brain cancer

121. You will be reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient. Which basic principle of teaching should you follow?

• Sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex.
• Assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic.
• Tell the patient to call their significant other so you can instruct them.
• Use medically oriented terms so the patient will be able to speak with the doctor.

122. As you are administering penicillin intravenously, you determine that the patient becomes hypotensive and with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first thing that you would do?

• Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• Call the doctor.
• Stop the intravenous flow.

123. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

• Intravenous potassium supplementation
• Intravenous calcium supplementation
• Kidney dialysis
• Parenteral nutrition

124. Which of the following foods enhances the absorption of an iron supplement?

• Orange juice
• Green beans
• Fortified Milk
• Baked potato

125. Select a myth or falsehood relating to pain, pain management and addiction.

• Addiction can be accurately predicted.
• Withdrawal, drug tolerance and physical dependence do not indicate addiction.
• Pain medications can be used with patients who have a substance abuse history.
• Addiction is signaled when the client employs deception and stockpiling.

126. What is the expected date of delivery for the woman who has had their last menstrual period on April 20^th?

• January 20th
• January 27th
• January 29th
• January 31st

127. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of:

• Duchennes’s muscular dystrophy
• Osteomyelitis
• Talipes or clubfoot
• Septic joint, suppurative arthritis

128. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?

• Licensed practical nurses cannot administer adjuvant medications.
• Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics.
• Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics.
• Adjuvant medications can be purchased over the counter.

129. Which nonpharmacological technique entails the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?

• Meditation
• Visualization
• Biofeedback
• Chiropractic

130. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

• Chest Circumference: 10 to 13 inches
• Length: 16 to 22 inches
• Weight: 1,500 to 4,000 g
• Head Circumference: 12.6 to 14.5 inches

131. Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arteritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?

• High doses of aspirin
• High doses of prednisone
• Methotrexate
• Albuterol

132. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:

• Reduces the potential of pain in the wound region or area.
• Stops the spread of infection by way of magnifying the “clean” area.
• Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
• Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.

133. You are caring for a four year old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire. How would you determine the extent of this child’s burns?

• By using the Lund and Browder chart
• By using the Rule of Nines
• By using the Rule of Tens
• By using the Parkland Formula

134. Your client has a doctor’s order that reads “advance diet as tolerated”. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, “I am hungry”. What would you offer this client to consume?

• Cheese and crackers
• Apple sauce
• Chicken broth
• A peanut butter sandwich

135. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is:

• Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• Caused by the over production of platelets.
• A bleeding disorder that is characterized with too few platelets.
• Treated with immune system boosting medications.

136. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

137. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

• Low birth weight: The neonate’s weight is less than 1,500 g at the time of delivery.
• Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate’s weight ranges from the 10th to the 90th percentile.
• Large for gestational age: The neonate’s weight is above the 99th percentile.
• Small for gestational age: The neonate’s weight is below the 20th percentile.

138. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

• A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
• A complicated pregnancy.
• A disorder of the pancreas.
• A disorder of the pituitary gland.

139. Which position will you place your patient in when they are demonstrating the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

• The Trendelenberg position
• The supine position
• The left lateral position
• The right lateral position

140. The fine, down-like hairs on the newborn’s ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead are known as:

• Vernix.
• Lanugo.
• Milia.
• Vibrissea.

141. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as?

• Dilation
• Symphysis
• Effacement
• Hyperplasia

142. Which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion?

• The knee
• The shoulder
• The elbow
• The finger tips

143. Which healthcare associated infection is the greatest risk for patients?

• Pneumonia
• Catheter related infections
• Intravenous line infections
• C. difficile

144. Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.

• The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdellah
• The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
• The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
• The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau

145. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

• Apical pulse
• Inspection
• Auscultation
• Percussion

146. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• Two point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient’s skin
• Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

147. Which is considered an internal disaster?

• A patient fall
• The massive spread of pneumonia
• A computer hacking episode
• Unexpected staff absences due to illness

148. Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?

• Erikson
• Piaget
• Freud
• Lister

149. You are working on a pediatric unit. Which toy or other diversional item or activity is most appropriate for your 18 month old patient?

• A story book
• A beach ball
• An interactive play session with other children less than 2 years of age
• Pickup sticks

150. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such opening the eyes and the sleep – wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?

• Obtunded
• A persistent vegetative state
• Locked in syndrome
• Brain death

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